Free NEET Practice Questions 2026

Free NEET Practice Questions: Preparing for NEET requires more than just reading concepts- it demands consistent practice, smart revision, and the ability to apply knowledge under exam-like pressure.

NEET practice questions provide students with the perfect opportunity to test their understanding, identify weak areas, and build confidence without any additional cost.

By solving well-curated questions regularly, aspirants can improve speed, accuracy, and familiarity with the exam pattern, making their preparation more focused and effective.

PHYSICS

Q.1. A ball is thrown horizontally with speed u from the top of a tower of height h. Air resistance is negligible. Which of the following quantities remains constant during the motion until just before it hits the ground?

A.Magnitude of velocity

B. Horizontal component of velocity

C. Acceleration perpendicular to the velocity

D. Vertical component of velocity

Q.2. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal surface and connected by a light string. A constant horizontal force F is applied to the heavier block. What is the tension in the string?

A. $2F\mathrm{/}3$

B. F/3

C. F

D. F/2

Q.3. A car of mass $m$ moves with speed $v$v on a circular track of radius $R$. The coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the road is ${\mu }_s$. What is the maximum speed for safe circular motion without skidding on a level (unbanked) road?

A. $v_{\max }=\sqrt{gR\mathrm{/}{\mu }_s}$

B. $v_{\max }=\sqrt{2{\mu }_{s}gR}$

C. $v_{\max }=\sqrt{{\mu }_{s}gR}$

D. $v_{\max }={\mu }_{s}gR$

Q.4. A body of mass m is dropped from rest from a height h. Ignoring air resistance, what is the work done by gravity when the body has fallen through half the height?

A. $mgh$

B. ${\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}}mgh$

C. Zero

D.${\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}}mgh$

Q.5. A gas in a cylinder is slowly compressed so that its pressure-volume graph is a straight line between initial state $(P_1,V_1)$ and final state $(P_2,V_2)$. The work done on the gas is given by the area under the P–$V$ curve. For a straight line, this area equals:

A. $W=(P_1+P_2)(V_1-V_2)$

B. $W={\displaystyle \frac{(P_1+P_2)}{2}}(V_1-V_2)$

C. $W=P_1(V_1-V_2)$

D. $W=P_2(V_1-V_2)$

Q.6. A light ray enters from air into glass at an angle of incidence $i$ and refracts at angle $r$. The speed of light in air is $c$ and in glass is $v$. Which relationship is consistent with Snell’s law and the definition of refractive index?

A. ${\displaystyle \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}}={\displaystyle \frac{v}{c}}$

B. $\sin i=\sin r$

C. ${\displaystyle \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}}={\displaystyle \frac{c}{v}}$

D. ${\displaystyle \frac{\sin r}{\sin i}}={\displaystyle \frac{c}{v}}$

Q.7. Two wires of equal length and material but different radii R and 2R are stretched by the same tension T. What is the ratio of their elastic potential energies stored (thin wire: thick wire)?

A. 1:4

B. 1:2

C. 2:1

D. 4:1

Q.8. For a simple harmonic oscillator with displacement $x(t)=A\cos (\omega t+\varphi )$which statement about its kinetic and potential energies is correct?

A. Potential energy is zero at mean position and maximum at extreme positions

B. Kinetic energy is maximum when displacement is maximum

C. Both (A) and (C) are correct

D. The sum of kinetic and potential energies remains constant in time

Q.9. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference V is $\lambda$. If the accelerating potential is increased to $4V$, what will be the new wavelength (non-relativistic regime)?

A.$\lambda \mathrm{/}\sqrt{2}$

B. $\lambda \mathrm{/}\sqrt{4}$

C. $\lambda \mathrm{/}2$

D. $\lambda \mathrm{/}4$

Q.10. A transformer steps up an AC voltage from $220\text{V}$ to $2200\text{V}$. If the primary coil has 500 turns, how many turns are in the secondary coil (ideal transformer)?

A. 5000

B. 50

C. 550

D. 220

Q.11. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the fringe width is β. If the entire apparatus is immersed in water (refractive index $\mu >1$), keeping the wavelength in air the same, what happens to the fringe width?

A. It becomes $\mu \beta$

B. It becomes zero

C. It becomes $\beta \mathrm{/}\mu$

D. It remains β

Q.12 A radioactive sample has a half-life of 10 days. If the initial activity is $A_0$, what will be the activity after 30 days?

A. $A_0\mathrm{/}8$

B. $A_0\mathrm{/}16$

C. $A_0\mathrm{/}4$

D. $A_0\mathrm{/}3$

Q.13. A current-carrying long straight wire produces a magnetic field B at a distance r. If the current is doubled and the distance from the wire is also doubled, what happens to the magnetic field at the new point?

A. It becomes $B\mathrm{/}2$

B. It becomes $B\mathrm{/}4$

C. It remains $B$

D. It becomes $2B$

Q.14. An electron and a proton are moving with the same linear momentum. Which of the following is true about their de Broglie wavelengths (non-relativistic speeds)?

A. Their wavelengths depend only on their masses

B. Electron has a longer de Broglie wavelength

C. Proton has a longer de Broglie wavelength

D. Both have the same de Broglie wavelength

Q.15. In a photoelectric experiment, light of frequency f just above the threshold frequency $f_0$ is incident on a metal surface. If the intensity of light is doubled, which of the following changes occurs?

A. Both photoelectric current and stopping potential increase

B. Photoelectric current increases, but stopping potential remains the same

C. Both remain unchanged

D. Stopping potential increases, but photoelectric current remains the same

Q.16. A convex lens of focal length $f$ is used as a simple microscope. When the object is placed just within the focal length, the image formed is:

A. Virtual, inverted, and diminished

B. Real, inverted, and magnified

C. Real, erect, and magnified

D. Virtual, erect, and magnified

Q.17. In an LCR series circuit at resonance, which of the following is true?

A. Current is maximum and power factor is 1

B. Current is minimum and power factor is less than 1

C. Current is maximum but power factor is zero

D. Current is independent of resistance

Q18. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder, both of same mass and radius, are released from rest at the top of an inclined plane and allowed to roll down without slipping. Which reaches the bottom first?

A. Solid sphere

B. Solid cylinder

C. Depends on the angle of inclination

D. Both reach simultaneously

CHEMISTRY

Q.19. For an ideal gas, which graph is expected to be a straight line passing through the origin?

A. Pressure P versus volume V at constant temperature

B. PV versus T at constant number of moles

C. Volume V versus temperature T at constant pressure (in Kelvin)

D. Pressure P versus temperature T at constant volume (in degrees Celsius)

Q20. Which of the following species has the highest ionic character in its bond?

A. H-Br

B. H-F

C. H-Cl

D. H-I

Q.21. Which of the following solutions will have the lowest freezing point?

A. 0.1 $\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ ${\text{CaCl}}_2$

B. 0.1 $\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ NaCl

C. 0.1 $\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ glucose $\left({\text{C}}_6{\text{H}}_{12}{\text{O}}_6\right)$

D. 0.1 $\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ urea $\left(\text{CO}{\left({\text{NH}}_2\right)}_2\right)$

Q.22. Which of the following pairs represents a conjugate acid-base pair according to Brønsted-Lowry theory?

A. ${\text{H}}_2\text{O}$ and ${\text{H}}_2$

B. NaOH and ${\text{Na}}^{+}$

C. $\text{HCl}$ and ${\text{Cl}}_2$

D. ${\text{NH}}_3$ and ${\text{NH}}_4^{+}$

Q.23. Which orbital will be filled first according to the Aufbau principle?

A. 4p

B. 4d

C. 4s

D. 3d

Q24. In the reaction of zinc with dilute hydrochloric acid, which statement is correct regarding the redox changes?

A. Chloride ions are reduced to chlorine gas

B. Zinc is reduced and acts as an oxidizing agent

C. Hydrogen ions are oxidized to form hydrogen gas

D. Zinc is oxidized and acts as a reducing agent

Q.25. Which of the following statements about catalysts is true?

A. A catalyst decreases the activation energy of both forward and backward reactions

B. A catalyst changes the enthalpy change $(\mathrm{\Delta }H)$ of the reaction

C. A catalyst is consumed in the reaction and does not regenerate

D. A catalyst increases the equilibrium constant of a reaction

Q.26. Which of the following molecules is expected to be planar according to the VSEPR theory?

A. ${\text{NH}}_3$

B. ${\text{H}}_2\text{O}$

C. ${\text{CH}}_4$

D. ${\text{BF}}_3$

Q.27. Which of the following statements about adsorption is correct?

A. Adsorption is a bulk phenomenon rather than a surface phenomenon

B. Chemical adsorption is reversible and occurs at low temperature

C. Physical adsorption increases with increase in temperature

D. Physical adsorption is due to weak van der Waals forces

Q.29. Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism?

A. ${\text{CH}}_3\text{CH}={\text{CH}}_2$

B. ${\text{C}}_6{\text{H}}_6$

C. ${\text{CH}}_2={\text{CH}}_2$

D. ${\text{CH}}_3\text{CH}={\text{CHCH}}_3$

Q.30.Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the highest pH?

A. 0.01 $\text{M}$ NaOH

B. 0.01 $\text{M}$ CH${}_3$COOH

C. 0.01 M HCl

D. 0.01 M NH${}_4$Cl

Q.31. Which of the following processes is used to obtain highly pure copper from blister copper?

A. Zone refining

B. Electrolytic refining

C. Froth flotation

D. Liquation

Q.32. Which of the following is a characteristic property of an ideal solution?

A. Enthalpy of mixing $(\mathrm{\Delta }{H}_{\text{mix}})$ is zero

B. Volume of mixing $(\mathrm{\Delta }{V}_{\text{mix}})$ is large and positive

C. It shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law

D. It shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law

Q.33. Which type of colloid is formed when sulphur is dispersed in water during the preparation of sulphur sol by the oxidation method?

A. Associated colloid

B. Lyophobic sol

C. Lyophilic sol

D. Emulsion

Q.34. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers $(n,l,m,s)$(n,l,m,s) is not allowed for an electron in an atom?

A. $3,2,3,+\frac{1}{2}$

B. $3,0,0,-\frac{1}{2}$

C. $2,1,0,+\frac{1}{2}$

D. $4,2,-1,-\frac{1}{2}$

Q.35. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?

A. Fehling’s solution

B. Bromine water

C. Conc. ${\text{H}}_2{\text{SO}}_4$

D. Dilute HCl

Q.36. The spin-only magnetic moment of a complex ion is found to be approximately 4.90 Bohr magnetons (BM). How many unpaired electrons are present in the complex?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

BIOLOGY

Q.37. In a fully grown dicot leaf, which tissue is primarily responsible for transporting the products of photosynthesis from the leaf to other parts of the plant?

A. Phloem of vascular bundles

B. Spongy mesophyll cells

C. Xylem vessels of midrib

D. Collenchyma in leaf stalk

Q.38. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for why enzymes are highly specific in the reactions they catalyze?

A. Enzymes permanently alter their own structure after each reaction

B. The active site has a precise 3D shape complementary to the substrate

C. Enzymes provide energy to drive reactions that would not occur otherwise

D. Enzymes are made only of carbohydrates, which bind selectively

Q.39. During meiosis in a human primary oocyte, at which specific stage is meiosis arrested until ovulation, and when is it finally completed?

A. Arrested at prophase I and completed after fertilization

B. Arrested at telophase II and completed at birth

C. Arrested at metaphase I and completed at puberty

D. Arrested at metaphase II and completed at ovulation

Q.40. Which of the following best explains why the small intestine is the primary site for absorption of nutrients in humans?

A. Its walls are made of thick stratified epithelium that prevents enzyme damage

B. It secretes concentrated hydrochloric acid that aids in nutrient absorption

C. It lacks any digestive enzymes, so only absorption occurs there

D. It has a large surface area due to villi and microvilli and rich blood supply

Q.41. In an ecosystem, which statement best describes the role of decomposers such as bacteria and fungi?

A. They convert solar energy directly into chemical energy

B. They recycle nutrients by breaking down dead organic matter

C. They fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia in all ecosystems

D. They always act as primary producers in food chains

Q.42. Which of the following best explains the Bohr effect observed in hemoglobin?

A. Hemoglobin’s affinity for ${\text{O}}_2$O2 decreases with increased ${\text{CO}}_2$CO2 and lower pH

B. Hemoglobin’s affinity for ${\text{O}}_2$O2 is independent of ${\text{CO}}_2$CO2 concentration

C. Hemoglobin binds more ${\text{O}}_2$O2 at low ${\text{CO}}_2$CO2 and high pH in tissues

D. Hemoglobin can bind ${\text{O}}_2$O2 only in the presence of carbonic anhydrase

Q.43. Which of the following structures is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A. Chloroplasts

B. Membrane-bound nucleus

C. Ribosomes

D. Mitochondria

Q.44. Which of the following best describes genetic linkage?

A. Tendency of genes located close together on the same chromosome to be inherited together

B. Random mutation of genes during meiosis

C. Dominance of one allele over another at the same locus

D. Independent assortment of genes located on different chromosomes

Q.45. Which of the following best explains why water has a high specific heat and helps maintain body temperature in organisms?

A. Hydrogen bonding between water molecules absorbs large amounts of heat

B. Water cannot participate in any chemical reactions in the body

C. Water has a low heat of vaporization, so it warms up quickly

D. Water molecules are nonpolar and do not form hydrogen bonds

Q.46. In human excretory system, which process primarily creates the glomerular filtrate from blood plasma?

A. Active secretion of solutes from blood into Bowman’s capsule

B. Ultrafiltration due to high hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries

C. Passive diffusion of solutes down their concentration gradient only

D. Endocytosis of plasma proteins into the nephron

Q.47. Which of the following best explains why the genetic code is described as “degenerate”?

A. Each codon specifies more than one amino acid

B. A single amino acid can be coded by more than one codon

C. Stop codons can also code for amino acids in some organisms

D. There are only 20 codons for 20 amino acids

Q.48. In plant physiology, which condition will most likely lead to the opening of stomata in a typical C3 plant?

A. High internal ${\text{CO}}_2$ concentration in the leaf and darkness

B. Nighttime and accumulation of organic acids in guard cells

C. Severe water stress and high abscisic acid levels in leaves

D. Adequate water supply, light, and low internal ${\text{CO}}_2$ concentration

Q.49. Which of the following statements correctly explains why a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium shows constant allele frequencies over generations?

A. Because population size is extremely small and subject to genetic drift

B. Because mutation and selection occur at very high rates

C. Because immigration and emigration are very frequent

D. Because random mating and absence of evolutionary forces maintain genetic stability

Q.50. Which one of the following best explains why viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites?

A. They require a host cell’s machinery to replicate their nucleic acid and synthesize proteins

B. They can carry out glycolysis but not the Krebs cycle

C. They have their own ribosomes and can synthesize proteins independently

D. They possess both DNA and RNA in all stages of their life cycle

Incorporating free practice questions into your daily study routine can make a significant difference in your NEET journey. The more you practice, the clearer your concepts become and the stronger your exam temperament grows.

Stay consistent, analyze your mistakes, and keep challenging yourself with new questions every day. With dedication, smart practice, and the right resources, achieving a high NEET score is absolutely within your reach.

ALL THE BEST!

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