NEET UG 2026 Important Practice Questions (Day 30)

NEET UG 2026 Important Practice Questions (Day 30): Day 30 is here, NEET warriors! You’ve officially stepped into the serious preparation zone for NEET UG 2026, and today’s important practice questions are designed to test your accuracy, speed, and conceptual clarity. Whether it’s tricky Biology statements, calculation-based Physics numericals, or conceptual Chemistry questions, this set will push you one step closer to your dream medical college. Remember, every question you solve today builds the confidence you’ll carry into the exam hall!

Q.1. A block of mass $2\text{kg}$ is pushed against a frictionless vertical wall by applying a horizontal force of $50\text{N}$. If the coefficient of static friction between the block and the wall is $0.4$, what happens to the block? Take $g=10{\text{m s}}^{-2}$.

A. It stays at rest because friction equals weight

B. It slides down because friction is less than weight

C. It loses contact with the wall and falls

D. It accelerates upward along the wall

Q.2. A block of mass $2\text{kg}$ is pushed against a spring of spring constant $400{\text{N m}}^{-1}$, compressing it by $0.10\text{m}$ on a smooth horizontal surface. When released, the block moves across the smooth surface and then continues onto a rough surface where the coefficient of kinetic friction is $0.2$. How much distance will it travel on the rough surface before coming to rest? (Take $g=10{\text{m s}}^{-2}$)

A. 0.5 m

B. 4.0 m

C. 2.0 m

D. 1.0 m

Q.3. A projectile is thrown with speed u at an angle θ above the horizontal. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following statements about its motion is correct?

A. The horizontal range is maximum for $\theta ={45}^{\circ }$ if landing height equals projection height

B. The vertical component of velocity remains constant

C. The acceleration is zero at the highest point

D. The horizontal component of velocity increases with time

Q.4. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to potential V and then disconnected from the battery. Its plates are then pulled apart so that the distance between them doubles, while the plate area remains constant and the space between them is vacuum. Which of the following is correct after the separation?

A. The capacitance doubles and potential becomes half

B. The charge on the plates doubles

C. The capacitance becomes half and potential doubles

D. The energy stored becomes half

Q.5. A car moves in a horizontal circular track of radius $50\text{m}$ with a speed of $10{\text{m s}}^{-1}$. If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the road is $0.2$, which of the following is true? (Take $g=10{\text{m s}}^{-2}$)

A. The car will move safely because friction is more than sufficient

B. The car will skid inward towards the center of the circle

C. The frictional force is not involved in providing centripetal force

D. The car will skid outward because required centripetal force exceeds maximum friction

Q.6. A long straight wire carries a steady current I. At a distance r from the wire, the magnetic field is B. What will be the magnetic field at a distance $2r$ from the same wire, in the same medium?

A. 4B

B. B/2

C. 2B

D. B/4

Q.7. A gas is taken through a cyclic process $A\to B\to C\to A$ in the $P\text{–}V$ diagram. The work done in one complete cycle is numerically equal to the area enclosed by the path and is found to be 500J in the clockwise direction. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The net work done on the gas in one cycle is +500J

B. The change in internal energy of the gas over one cycle is +500J

C. The net heat absorbed by the gas in one cycle is 500J

D. The internal energy of the gas increases by 500J in one cycle

Q.8. A light ray in air is incident on a glass slab (refractive index $\mu =1.5$) at an angle of ${60}^{\circ }$ with the normal. What is the angle of refraction inside the glass?

A. ${35}^{\circ }$

B. ${30}^{\circ }$

C. ${60}^{\circ }$

D. ${40}^{\circ }$

Q.9. Two radioactive substances X and Y have half-lives of 1hour and 2hours respectively. Initially, they contain the same number of nuclei. What is the ratio of their activities $A_X\mathrm{/}{A}_Y$after $2\text{hours}$?

A. 4:1

B. 2:1

C. 1:2

D. 1:1

Q.10. An object is placed $15\text{cm}$ in front of a concave mirror of focal length $10\text{cm}$. The nature and position of the image formed are best given by which option?

A. Real, inverted image at $10\text{cm}$ in front of the mirror

B. Real, inverted image at $30\text{cm}$ in front of the mirror

C. Real, inverted image at $15\text{cm}$ in front of the mirror

D. Virtual, upright image behind the mirror

Q.11. A metal wire of length $L$ and cross-sectional area $A$ has resistance $R$. If the wire is uniformly stretched so that its length becomes $1.5L$ and the volume remains constant, what will be its new resistance?

A. 2.25R

B. R/2.25

C. R/1.5

D. 1.5R

Q.12. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude $A$ and angular frequency $\omega$. At a displacement $x=A\mathrm{/}2$ from the mean position, what fraction of the total mechanical energy is kinetic?

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 1/8

D. 3/4

Q.13. The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant $h$h is:

A. $[M^0{L}^0{T}^0]$

B. $[ML{T}^{-2}]$

C. $[M{L}^2{T}^{-1}]$

D. $[M^0{L}^2{T}^{-2}]$

Q.14. A transistor is used as a common-emitter amplifier. If the input AC signal voltage is $10\text{mV}$ and the output AC signal voltage is $2\text{V}$, what is the voltage gain of the amplifier?

A. 20

B. 100

C. 200

D. 50

Q.15. In an LCR series circuit at resonance, which of the following statements is true?

A. Current lags voltage by ${90}^{\circ }$

B. Impedance is minimum and equal to resistance

C. Impedance is maximum and current is minimum

D. Current leads voltage by ${90}^{\circ }$

Q.16. Which statement best explains why ice floats on liquid water?

A. Water molecules in liquid state are arranged in a fixed lattice

B. Ice has a higher density due to closely packed molecules

C. Covalent bonds within water molecules expand on freezing

D. Hydrogen bonding in ice creates an open hexagonal structure

Q.17. Which of the following has the highest ionization enthalpy?

A. Al

B. Mg

C. Na

D. Si

Q.18. Which pair of solutions will form a buffer when mixed in suitable proportions?

A. HCl and $\text{NaCl}$

B. NaOH and $\text{NaCl}$

C. ${\text{NH}}_4\text{OH}$ and ${\text{NH}}_4\text{Cl}$

D. ${\text{CH}}_3\text{COONa}$ and $\text{NaCl}$

Q.19. The shape of ${\text{SF}}_6$ molecule according to VSEPR theory is:

A. Square planar

B. Trigonal bipyramidal

C. Tetrahedral

D. Octahedral

Q.20. Which of the following ideals is violated when real gases deviate from ideal behavior at high pressures?

A. Gas molecules move randomly in all directions

B. Gas molecules have constant average kinetic energy at given temperature

C. Gas molecules are in continuous motion

D. Gas molecules occupy negligible volume compared to container

Q.21. Which statement regarding adsorption isotherms is most appropriate for chemisorption?

A. Chemisorption is specific, often forms monolayer, and increases with temperature up to a point

B. Chemisorption decreases continuously with increase in temperature

C. Chemisorption is usually reversible and significant at low temperatures

D. Chemisorption involves weak van der Waals forces and forms multilayers

Q.22. Which compound will show geometrical isomerism?

A. ${\text{CH}}_3-\text{C}\equiv \text{CH}$

B. ${\text{CH}}_3-\text{CH}={\text{CH}}_2$

C. ${\text{CH}}_3\text{CH}={\text{CHCH}}_3$

D. ${\text{CH}}_2={\text{CH}}_2$

Q.23. Which reagent is best suited to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones (without $\alpha$α-hydrogen) in NEET-level questions?

A. 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNP)

B. Tollens’ reagent

C. Grignard reagent

D. Fehling’s solution

Q.24. Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling point, assuming complete dissociation where applicable?

A.$0.1\text{M}$ ${\text{KNO}}_3$

B. $0.1\text{M}$ $\text{NaCl}$

C. 0.1M ${\text{C}}_6{\text{H}}_{12}{\text{O}}_6$ (glucose)

D. 0.1M ${\text{CaCl}}_2$

Q.25. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent in aqueous solution?

A. ${\text{Cl}}_2$

B. ${\text{Br}}_2$

C. ${\text{F}}_2$

D. ${\text{I}}_2$

Q.26. In the context of d-block elements, which statement about transition metals is generally correct?

A. They often exhibit variable oxidation states due to involvement of both $s$ and $d$ electrons

B. They do not form complexes because of poor ability to accept ligands

C. They form colored ions due to $s$s-orbital transitions

D. They have completely filled $d$-orbitals in their common oxidation states

Q.27. Which of the following is an example of a nucleophilic substitution reaction in organic chemistry?

A. Hydrogenation of ethene to ethane using $\text{Ni}$Ni catalyst

B. Dehydration of ethanol to ethene using concentrated ${\text{H}}_2{\text{SO}}_4$H2SO4

C. Ozonolysis of alkenes to form carbonyl compounds

D. Reaction of ${\text{CH}}_3\text{Br}$ with ${\text{OH}}^{-}$ to form ${\text{CH}}_3\text{OH}$

Q.28. Which statement best describes the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

A. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy

B. A catalyst alters the equilibrium constant of the reaction

C. A catalyst increases the activation energy of the reaction

D. A catalyst is consumed during the reaction and not regenerated

Q.29. Which statement about polymers is correct?

A. Nylon-6,6 is formed by addition of adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine without elimination

B. Natural rubber is a copolymer of isoprene and styrene

C. Teflon is obtained by polymerization of tetrafluoroethene

D. Bakelite is a linear polymer formed by addition polymerization

Q.30. Which of the following is an essential condition for optical isomerism in organic compounds?

A. Molecule must be planar and symmetrical

B. Presence of a chiral carbon atom or overall chirality

C. Presence of a $\text{C}=\text{C}$ double bond

D. Presence of at least one $\text{C}\equiv \text{C}$ bond

Q.31. In a typical C3 plant leaf, which combination correctly identifies where the light reactions and the Calvin cycle primarily occur?

A. Light reactions in thylakoid membranes; Calvin cycle in stroma

B. Light reactions in stroma; Calvin cycle in thylakoid lumen

C. Both light reactions and Calvin cycle in mitochondrial matrix

D. Both light reactions and Calvin cycle in thylakoid membranes

Q.32. Which statement best explains why the action spectrum of photosynthesis does not exactly match the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll?

A. Carotenoids and other accessory pigments broaden the range of usable light

B. Photosynthesis can use only ultraviolet light, not visible light

C. Chlorophyll a absorbs green light most efficiently, which plants reflect

D. Chlorophyll a is the only pigment active in photosynthesis

Q.33. Which feature is unique to prokaryotic cells when compared with typical eukaryotic cells?

A. Presence of membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria

B. Presence of a true, membrane-bound nucleus

C. Compartmentalization of functions within extensive endomembrane system

D. Circular DNA not associated with histone proteins in most groups

Q.34. A plant hormone is applied to unripe, green bananas in storage, which then rapidly turn yellow and soften. Which hormone is most likely responsible for this effect, and what is its primary mode of action?

A. Ethylene; stimulating fruit ripening and associated enzymatic changes

B. Gibberellin; breaking seed dormancy and inducing bolting

C. Abscisic acid; inducing stomatal closure and dormancy

D. Auxin; promoting cell elongation in the stem

Q.35. In the human nephron, which combination correctly matches the site with its primary function?

A. Loop of Henle (descending limb) – active secretion of hydrogen ions

B. Distal convoluted tubule – ultrafiltration of blood under pressure

C. Bowman’s capsule – fine-tuning of water and sodium reabsorption under hormonal control

D. Proximal convoluted tubule – major reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, and ions

Q.36. During meiosis in a human male, how many genetically distinct sperm cells can be produced from a single primary spermatocyte, and what event primarily generates this genetic variation?

A. Four sperm cells; crossing over and independent assortment of homologous chromosomes

B. Eight sperm cells; random fusion with different ova

C. Two sperm cells; crossing over during prophase I

D. Four sperm cells; independent assortment of sister chromatids

Q.37. In an ecosystem, which change would most directly reduce the primary productivity of a grassland?

A. Significant reduction in soil nitrogen due to continuous cropping without replenishment

B. Introduction of a new decomposer species that accelerates litter breakdown

C. Decrease in the population of primary consumers such as grazing herbivores

D. Increase in predator population controlling herbivores

Q.38. Which statement best differentiates innate immunity from adaptive immunity in humans?

A. Innate immunity includes physical barriers and cellular defenses present from birth, while adaptive immunity involves antigen-specific responses that develop after exposure

B. Innate immunity is found only in invertebrates, while adaptive immunity is exclusive to vertebrates

C. Innate immunity is specific and improves with repeated exposure, while adaptive immunity is non-specific and constant

D. Innate immunity relies exclusively on antibodies, while adaptive immunity uses only phagocytic cells

Q39. Which event is most directly responsible for the downward stroke (decrease in membrane potential) of a typical neuronal action potential in a mammalian motor neuron?

A. Opening of ligand-gated chloride channels at inhibitory synapses

B. Opening of voltage-gated potassium channels leading to efflux of ${\text{K}}^{+}$K+

C. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels causing rapid influx of ${\text{Na}}^{+}$Na+

D. Activation of sodium–potassium pumps restoring ionic gradients

Q.40. In humans, which blood component primarily helps maintain osmotic balance and also serves as a major transport protein for various substances in plasma?

A. Platelets

B. Fibrinogen

C. Red blood cells

D. Albumin

Q.41. Which event is most directly responsible for the downward stroke (decrease in membrane potential) of a typical neuronal action potential in a mammalian motor neuron?

A. Opening of ligand-gated chloride channels at inhibitory synapses

B. Opening of voltage-gated potassium channels leading to efflux of ${\text{K}}^{+}$K+

C. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels causing rapid influx of ${\text{Na}}^{+}$Na+

D. Activation of sodium–potassium pumps restoring ionic gradients

Q.42. Which combination accurately describes a key structural adaptation of C4 plants that reduces photorespiration?

A. Presence of Kranz anatomy with bundle sheath cells performing the Calvin cycle, and initial ${\text{CO}}_2$ fixation in mesophyll cells via PEP carboxylase

B. Absence of bundle sheath cells to maximize direct exposure of chloroplasts to oxygen

C. Uniform distribution of chloroplasts in all leaf cells, allowing random ${\text{CO}}_2$ fixation

D. Use of RuBisCO only in mesophyll cells with high internal oxygen concentration

Q.43. Which statement about the lac operon in Escherichia coli best describes its regulation in the presence of both lactose and high glucose?

A. The operon is repressed because lactose activates the repressor protein

B. The operon is only weakly expressed because the repressor is inactivated by lactose, but cAMP levels are low due to high glucose

C. The operon is maximally expressed because high glucose increases cAMP, enhancing CAP binding

D. The operon is fully activated because lactose inactivates the repressor and glucose has no effect

Q.44. In human reproduction, which event correctly describes implantation?

A. Fusion of sperm and ovum in the ampulla of the fallopian tube

B. Release of the secondary oocyte from the Graafian follicle in the ovary

C. Attachment and embedding of the blastocyst into the endometrial lining of the uterus

D. Development of the placenta from chorionic villi and maternal tissues

Q.45. Which statement correctly explains why viruses are often considered obligate intracellular parasites?

A. They are larger than most bacteria and thus must live inside cells

B. They lack cellular machinery for independent metabolism and replication, requiring a host cell to reproduce

C. They possess both DNA and RNA, which can function only inside host cells

D. They can perform all metabolic activities but prefer living inside cells

Q.46. Which of the following best describes the Hardy–Weinberg principle for a large, randomly mating population?

A. Mutation and migration are essential to maintain constant allele frequencies

B. Allele frequencies always change rapidly, even without selection, due to random mating

C. Natural selection has no impact on allele frequencies in any population

D. Allele and genotype frequencies remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary forces

Q.47. In the context of human nutrition, which vitamin-deficiency pair is correctly matched with its primary clinical manifestation?

A. Vitamin D – rickets in children due to defective bone mineralization

B. Vitamin B${}_{12}$ – scurvy with defective collagen synthesis

C. Vitamin C – night blindness

D. Vitamin K – beriberi with peripheral neuropathy

Q.48. Which human blood group genotype will definitely produce a person with blood group O under the ABO system?

A. IBIO

B. IAIO

C. IAIA

D. IOIO

Q.49. Which statement best explains why amphibians are often considered good biological indicators of environmental health?

A. They have no predators and thus reflect only abiotic changes

B. They occupy only the top trophic level in food chains, accumulating maximum toxins

C. They have permeable skin and complex life cycles that expose them to both aquatic and terrestrial pollutants

D. They are strictly marine animals with highly stable populations

Q.50. Which statement correctly describes the role of decomposers in biogeochemical cycles?

A. They break down dead organic matter, releasing inorganic nutrients back into the environment for reuse by producers

B. They convert inorganic nutrients into organic forms that plants can absorb

C. They primarily capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy

D. They fix atmospheric nitrogen directly into nitrates without any intermediate compounds

Read Also: NEET UG Practice Questions Day 29

Consistency is what separates toppers from the rest. By completing Day 30’s practice questions, you’re strengthening your foundation and improving your exam temperament. Keep revising, keep practicing, and keep believing in yourself. The journey to cracking NEET UG 2026 isn’t about studying harder one day; it’s about showing up every single day. See you tomorrow for Day 31!

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