Welcome to NEET UG Practice Paper Day 39, a vital milestone in your preparation journey for the NEET UG 2026 exam. This practice paper, meticulously crafted from the Class 11 and 12 NCERT syllabus, features a balanced mix of 15 questions across Biology, Chemistry, and Physics to enhance your conceptual clarity, time management, and exam temperament.
Q.1. In the reaction of (R)-2-bromobutane with aqueous KOH, a mixture of alcohols is formed. If the reaction proceeds through both SN1 and SN2 pathways simultaneously such that the SN2 rate is twice the SN1 rate, what is the optical purity of the resulting 2-butanol?
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 66.7%
D. 33.3%
Q.2. A double heterozygous plant (AaBb) is test-crossed. The offspring show: AaBb (42), aabb (44), Aabb (8), and aaBb (6). What is the map distance between genes A and B, and what was the linkage phase in the parent?
A. 14 cM; Repulsion (Trans) phase
B. 7 cM; Coupling (Cis) phase
C. 14 cM; Coupling (Cis) phase
D. 86 cM; Repulsion (Trans) phase
Q.3. A gas undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion from volume to at temperature . The gas has a temperature-dependent equation of state given by , where increases linearly with . For this process, which statement about the work done and the internal energy change is most appropriate, assuming the gas has non-ideal interactions but constant molar heat capacity at constant volume ?
A. W depends only on and , while because the process is isothermal
B. W depends on the exact form of and because expansion increases potential energy
C. W and are both path dependent and cannot be determined for a reversible process
D. W depends only on , , and , while may be non-zero because intermolecular potential energy can change
Q.4. A radioactive sample contains a mixture of two nuclides, and , that decay independently. has a half-life of 2 hours, and has a half-life of 6 hours. Initially, the activities of X and are equal. After 6 hours, what is the ratio of the total activity of the sample to its initial total activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.5. Which of the following molecules has the maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom?
A. SF4
B. I3−
C. XeF2
D. ClF3
BIOLOGY
Q.6. In a complex food web of a temperate forest, a pesticide selectively killing predatory insects is introduced. Over time, a marked increase in herbivorous insect population is observed, followed by a significant decline in certain plant species and later a crash in the herbivore population. This pattern best illustrates which ecological concept?
A. Competitive exclusion among herbivores
B. Allee effect in primary producers
C. Trophic cascade with top-down control
D. Bottom-up regulation of trophic levels
Q.7. Which of the following experimental observations most strongly supports the fluid mosaic model of biological membranes rather than a static protein-lipid sandwich model?
A. X-ray diffraction patterns revealing regular, crystalline arrangement of membrane lipids
B. High proportion of cholesterol in animal cell membranes but not in plant membranes
C.Presence of distinct thicknesses of membranes in different organelles under electron microscopy
D. Rapid lateral diffusion of fluorescently labeled membrane proteins within the plane of the membrane
Q.8. A gene encoding an enzyme has a point mutation in its coding region that changes a codon from to , but the enzyme’s activity and structure remain unchanged. Later, another mutation occurs in the same gene’s intron, disrupting a key branch point adenine required for splicing. What is the most likely combined effect on the protein product?
A. Both mutations together cause a frameshift in the coding sequence
B. The first mutation is silent, but the second leads to aberrant splicing and likely a nonfunctional protein
C. The first mutation reduces enzyme efficiency, while the second compensates by altering splicing to restore function
D. No change at all, because both mutations are silent
Q.9. In a population of flowering plants, a particular trait is controlled by a single gene with two alleles, and . Allele is incompletely dominant over , leading to three distinct phenotypes in , , and individuals. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the frequency of the intermediate phenotype is 0.48, what is the frequency of allele ?
A. 0.52
B. 0.24
C. 0.60
D. 0.40
Q.10. A bacterial operon is regulated by both a repressor protein that binds the operator and an activator protein that binds a site upstream of the promoter. The activator enhances RNA polymerase binding only when a specific small molecule is present. A mutation occurs that prevents the activator from binding DNA but leaves the repressor functional. In the presence of the small molecule and absence of any inducer for the repressor, what is the expected transcriptional state of the operon?
A. Basal-level transcription independent of regulator proteins
B. Constitutively high transcription because the small molecule is present
C. Oscillating transcription levels due to conflicting regulatory signals
D. No transcription because the repressor remains bound and the activator cannot assist RNA polymerase
PHYSICS
Q.11. A parallel-plate capacitor with plate area and separation is connected to a battery of emf and fully charged. While still connected to the battery, a dielectric slab of dielectric constant and thickness is fully inserted between the plates, completely filling the space. Which statement about the energy stored in the capacitor before and after insertion is correct?
A. The stored energy remains unchanged because the voltage is constant
B. The stored energy increases by a factor of K because the capacitance increases
C. The stored energy decreases by a factor of K because the voltage is constant
D. The stored energy becomes zero because the electric field inside the dielectric is cancelled
Q.12. A body of mass m executes simple harmonic motion (SHM) along the x-axis under a restoring force . Its total mechanical energy is . At a displacement from equilibrium, where is the amplitude, what fraction of the total mechanical energy is kinetic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.13. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the radius of the nth orbit is given by , where is the Bohr radius. If an electron makes a transition from to , what is the ratio of the initial orbital angular momentum to the final orbital angular momentum according to this model?
A. 4:2
B. 1:2
C.16:4
D. 2:1
Q.14. A projectile is launched from the ground with speed at an angle to the horizontal in a region where air resistance is not negligible and is proportional to the instantaneous velocity (linear drag). Compared to ideal projectile motion without air resistance, which qualitative change in the trajectory is most accurate?
A. The time of flight increases, but the horizontal range remains the same
B. Both the maximum height and horizontal range decrease, and the trajectory becomes more steeply curved
C. The horizontal range decreases, but the maximum height increases
D. The trajectory remains parabolic but with reduced range
Q.15. A thin convex lens of focal length forms a real, inverted image of an object placed at a distance from the lens. The lens is then cut along a diameter into two equal halves, and one half is laterally displaced by a small distance parallel to the cut while keeping both halves perpendicular to the principal axis. What will happen to the image of the object?
A. The image will become virtual and closer to the lens
B. The image will split into two separate real images, both inverted and located symmetrically about the original image position
C. The image will disappear because the lens is no longer continuous
D. The image will remain single, real, inverted, and at the same position but with reduced brightness
Congratulations on completing Day 39 of your NEET UG Practice Paper series – your dedication is building the resilience needed for success. Analyze your performance to identify strengths and gaps, revise weak topics promptly, and carry this momentum forward; excellence in NEET comes from consistent, reflective practice like this.
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All The Best!!
