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NEET UG Practice Paper Day 39

Day 39 brings you a unique set of questions, moderately difficult to challenge your conceptual clarity.

Welcome to NEET UG Practice Paper Day 39, a vital milestone in your preparation journey for the NEET UG 2026 exam. This practice paper, meticulously crafted from the Class 11 and 12 NCERT syllabus, features a balanced mix of 15 questions across Biology, Chemistry, and Physics to enhance your conceptual clarity, time management, and exam temperament.

Q.1. In the reaction of (R)-2-bromobutane with aqueous KOH, a mixture of alcohols is formed. If the reaction proceeds through both SN​1 and SN​2 pathways simultaneously such that the SN​2 rate is twice the SN​1 rate, what is the optical purity of the resulting 2-butanol?

A. 0%

B. 50%

C. 66.7%

D. 33.3%

Q.2. A double heterozygous plant (AaBb) is test-crossed. The offspring show: AaBb (42), aabb (44), Aabb (8), and aaBb (6). What is the map distance between genes A and B, and what was the linkage phase in the parent?

A. 14 cM; Repulsion (Trans) phase

B. 7 cM; Coupling (Cis) phase

C. 14 cM; Coupling (Cis) phase

D. 86 cM; Repulsion (Trans) phase

Q.3. A gas undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion from volume V1 to V2 at temperature T. The gas has a temperature-dependent equation of state given by P=nRTVb(T), where b(T) increases linearly with T. For this process, which statement about the work done W and the internal energy change ΔU is most appropriate, assuming the gas has non-ideal interactions but constant molar heat capacity at constant volume CV?

A. W depends only on V1 and V2, while ΔU=0 because the process is isothermal

B. W depends on the exact form of b(T) and ΔU>0 because expansion increases potential energy

C. W and ΔU are both path dependent and cannot be determined for a reversible process

D. W depends only on V1V2, and T, while ΔU may be non-zero because intermolecular potential energy can change

Q.4. A radioactive sample contains a mixture of two nuclides, X and Y, that decay independently. X has a half-life of 2 hours, and Y has a half-life of 6 hours. Initially, the activities of X and Y are equal. After 6 hours, what is the ratio of the total activity of the sample to its initial total activity?

A. 14

B. 716

C. 512

D.38

Q.5. Which of the following molecules has the maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom?

A. SF4​

B. I3−​

C. XeF2​

D. ClF3​

BIOLOGY

Q.6. In a complex food web of a temperate forest, a pesticide selectively killing predatory insects is introduced. Over time, a marked increase in herbivorous insect population is observed, followed by a significant decline in certain plant species and later a crash in the herbivore population. This pattern best illustrates which ecological concept?

A. Competitive exclusion among herbivores

B. Allee effect in primary producers

C. Trophic cascade with top-down control

D. Bottom-up regulation of trophic levels

Q.7. Which of the following experimental observations most strongly supports the fluid mosaic model of biological membranes rather than a static protein-lipid sandwich model?

A. X-ray diffraction patterns revealing regular, crystalline arrangement of membrane lipids

B. High proportion of cholesterol in animal cell membranes but not in plant membranes

C.Presence of distinct thicknesses of membranes in different organelles under electron microscopy

D. Rapid lateral diffusion of fluorescently labeled membrane proteins within the plane of the membrane

Q.8. A gene encoding an enzyme has a point mutation in its coding region that changes a codon from GAA to GAG, but the enzyme’s activity and structure remain unchanged. Later, another mutation occurs in the same gene’s intron, disrupting a key branch point adenine required for splicing. What is the most likely combined effect on the protein product?

A. Both mutations together cause a frameshift in the coding sequence

B. The first mutation is silent, but the second leads to aberrant splicing and likely a nonfunctional protein

C. The first mutation reduces enzyme efficiency, while the second compensates by altering splicing to restore function

D. No change at all, because both mutations are silent

Q.9. In a population of flowering plants, a particular trait is controlled by a single gene with two alleles, A and a. Allele A is incompletely dominant over a, leading to three distinct phenotypes in AAAa, and aa individuals. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the frequency of the intermediate phenotype is 0.48, what is the frequency of allele A?

A. 0.52

B. 0.24

C. 0.60

D. 0.40

Q.10. A bacterial operon is regulated by both a repressor protein that binds the operator and an activator protein that binds a site upstream of the promoter. The activator enhances RNA polymerase binding only when a specific small molecule is present. A mutation occurs that prevents the activator from binding DNA but leaves the repressor functional. In the presence of the small molecule and absence of any inducer for the repressor, what is the expected transcriptional state of the operon?

A. Basal-level transcription independent of regulator proteins

B. Constitutively high transcription because the small molecule is present

C. Oscillating transcription levels due to conflicting regulatory signals

D. No transcription because the repressor remains bound and the activator cannot assist RNA polymerase

PHYSICS

Q.11. A parallel-plate capacitor with plate area A and separation d is connected to a battery of emf V and fully charged. While still connected to the battery, a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K and thickness d is fully inserted between the plates, completely filling the space. Which statement about the energy stored in the capacitor before and after insertion is correct?

A. The stored energy remains unchanged because the voltage is constant

B. The stored energy increases by a factor of KK because the capacitance increases

C. The stored energy decreases by a factor of KK because the voltage is constant

D. The stored energy becomes zero because the electric field inside the dielectric is cancelled

Q.12. A body of mass mm executes simple harmonic motion (SHM) along the x-axis under a restoring force F=kx. Its total mechanical energy is E. At a displacement x=A2 from equilibrium, where A is the amplitude, what fraction of the total mechanical energy is kinetic?

A. 14

B. 12

C. 38

D. 34

Q.13. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the radius of the nnth orbit is given by rn=n2a0, where a0 is the Bohr radius. If an electron makes a transition from n=4 to n=2, what is the ratio of the initial orbital angular momentum to the final orbital angular momentum according to this model?

A. 4:2

B. 1:2

C.16:4

D. 2:1

Q.14. A projectile is launched from the ground with speed u at an angle θ to the horizontal in a region where air resistance is not negligible and is proportional to the instantaneous velocity (linear drag). Compared to ideal projectile motion without air resistance, which qualitative change in the trajectory is most accurate?

A. The time of flight increases, but the horizontal range remains the same

B. Both the maximum height and horizontal range decrease, and the trajectory becomes more steeply curved

C. The horizontal range decreases, but the maximum height increases

D. The trajectory remains parabolic but with reduced range

Q.15. A thin convex lens of focal length f forms a real, inverted image of an object placed at a distance 2f from the lens. The lens is then cut along a diameter into two equal halves, and one half is laterally displaced by a small distance d parallel to the cut while keeping both halves perpendicular to the principal axis. What will happen to the image of the object?

A. The image will become virtual and closer to the lens

B. The image will split into two separate real images, both inverted and located symmetrically about the original image position

C. The image will disappear because the lens is no longer continuous

D. The image will remain single, real, inverted, and at the same position but with reduced brightness

Congratulations on completing Day 39 of your NEET UG Practice Paper series – your dedication is building the resilience needed for success. Analyze your performance to identify strengths and gaps, revise weak topics promptly, and carry this momentum forward; excellence in NEET comes from consistent, reflective practice like this.

Comment Below for Answers

All The Best!!


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Prakriti Edufever Author

Prakriti Suman is a Research Associate at RM Group of Education, specialized in higher education research, academic analysis, and data-driven insights for student guidance and institutional strategy. She is an UGC NET Qualified Researcher with an interdisciplinary background in Forensic Science, Criminology, and Information Security, she brings a strong analytical perspective to understanding student behavior, academic trends, child psychology and professional education pathways.

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