NEET UG Practice Questions Day 29

NEET UG NEET UG Practice Questions Day 29: Welcome to today’s NEET UG Practice Questions, where every MCQ brings you one step closer to that dream medical college! Think of this as your daily dose of revision – no side effects, only score improvement!

Whether you’re aiming for 650+ or just trying to master tricky concepts, these questions are designed to sharpen your accuracy, boost confidence, and make learning a little more exciting. So grab your pen, set a timer, and let’s see how many you can crack today!

PHYSICS

Q.1. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed of $20{\text{m s}}^{-1}$. Neglecting air resistance, which graph best represents the variation of its velocity $v$ with time $t$ during its entire flight (up and down)?

A. A parabola opening downwards with its vertex at $v=0$

B. A straight line with positive slope starting from $v=20{\text{m s}}^{-1}$

C. A straight line with negative slope, crossing $v=0$ at some $t$t and extending symmetrically above and below the time axis

D. A horizontal line parallel to the time axis at $v=20{\text{m s}}^{-1}$

Q.2. A block of mass $2\text{kg}$ is placed on a rough horizontal surface and is pulled by a horizontal force of $10\text{N}$. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is $0.3$, what is the acceleration of the block? Take $g=10{\text{m s}}^{-2}$.

A. $2{\text{m s}}^{-2}$

B. $1{\text{m s}}^{-2}$

C. $3{\text{m s}}^{-2}$

D. The block does not move

Q.3. A car of mass $1000\text{kg}$ is moving with a uniform speed of $20{\text{m s}}^{-1}$ on a circular track of radius $50\text{m}$. What is the magnitude of the centripetal force acting on the car?

A. 4000N

B. $400\text{N}$

C. $20000\text{N}$

D. $8000\text{N}$

Q.4. Two identical springs, each of spring constant $k$, are connected in series and a mass $m$ is attached. What is the effective spring constant of the combination?

A. k

B. ${\displaystyle \frac{3k}{2}}$

C. $2k$

D. ${\displaystyle \frac{k}{2}}$

Q.5. A body executes simple harmonic motion (SHM) with amplitude $A$ and angular frequency $\omega$. At a displacement of ${\displaystyle \frac{A}{2}}$ from the mean position, what fraction of the total energy is kinetic?

A. ${\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}}$

B. ${\displaystyle \frac{1}{8}}$

C. ${\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}}$

D. ${\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}}$

Q.6. A ray of light is incident from air onto a glass slab at an angle of ${30}^{\circ }$. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is $\sqrt{3}$. What is the angle of refraction in the glass?

A. ${30}^{\circ }$

B. ${60}^{\circ }$

C. $0^{\circ }$

D. ${45}^{\circ }$

Q.7. A convex lens of focal length $20\text{cm}$ forms a real, inverted image of an object on a screen placed $60\text{cm}$ from the lens. What is the distance of the object from the lens?

A. $40\text{cm}$

B. $15\text{cm}$

C. $45\text{cm}$

D. $30\text{cm}$

Q.8. A capacitor of capacitance $10\mu \text{F}$ is charged to a potential difference of $100\text{V}$. How much electrostatic energy is stored in the capacitor?

A. $1.0\text{J}$

B. $0.5\text{J}$

C. $0.1\text{J}$

D. $0.05\text{J}$

Q.9. Two charges $+Q$ and $-Q$ are separated by a small distance $2a$. At a far point on the perpendicular bisector of this dipole, the electric field varies with distance $r$ as:

A. $\propto {\displaystyle \frac{1}{r^4}}$

B. $\propto {\displaystyle \frac{1}{r}}$

C. $\propto {\displaystyle \frac{1}{r^3}}$

D. $\propto {\displaystyle \frac{1}{r^2}}$

Q.10. A current-carrying straight conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its length. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the magnitude of the force on the conductor?

A. Current in the conductor

B. Resistance of the conductor

C. Strength of the magnetic field

D. Length of the conductor in the field

Q.11. A transformer is used to step up an alternating voltage from $220\text{V}$ to $2200\text{V}$. If the primary coil has $1000$ turns, how many turns must the secondary coil have (assuming an ideal transformer)?

A. 1000 turns

B. 220 turns

C. 100 turns

D. 10,000 turns

Q.12. Which one of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?

A. X-rays

B. Infrared rays

C. Microwaves

D. Gamma rays

Q.13. In a photoelectric effect experiment, increasing the intensity of incident light (of frequency greater than the threshold frequency) on a metal surface leads to which of the following changes?

A. Increase in maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons

B. Increase in number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time

C. Increase in stopping potential

D. Decrease in threshold frequency

Q.14. A particle moves in a circle of radius $r$ with uniform speed $v$. Which of the following statements about its acceleration is correct?

A. The acceleration is directed tangentially and has magnitude ${\displaystyle \frac{v^2}{r}}$.

B. The acceleration is directed away from the centre and has magnitude ${\displaystyle \frac{v^2}{r}}$.

C. The acceleration is directed towards the centre and has magnitude ${\displaystyle \frac{v^2}{r}}$.

D. The acceleration is zero because the speed is constant.

Q.15. A monochromatic light beam of wavelength $\lambda$ in air is incident normally on a glass slab of refractive index $\mu$. What happens to its wavelength and frequency inside the glass?

A. Wavelength decreases but frequency remains the same.

B. Both wavelength and frequency increase.

C. Wavelength increases but frequency remains the same.

D. Both wavelength and frequency decrease.

CHEMISTRY

Q.16. Which quantum number primarily determines the shape of an orbital in an atom?

A. Spin quantum number $m_s$

B. Principal quantum number $n$

C. Azimuthal (angular momentum) quantum number $l$

D. Magnetic quantum number $m_l$

Q.17. Which of the following pairs of solutions will form a buffer when mixed in suitable proportions?

A. ${\text{NH}}_4\text{Cl}$ and ${\text{NH}}_4{\text{NO}}_3$

B. $\text{NaCl}$ and $\text{HCl}$

C. NaOH and $\text{NaCl}$

D. ${\text{CH}}_3\text{COOH}$ and ${\text{CH}}_3\text{COONa}$

Q.18. Which statement best explains why ${\text{Li}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$ is thermally more stable than ${\text{Na}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$?

A. ${\text{Na}}^{+}$ has a larger size and weaker polarizing power, making ${\text{Na}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$ decompose more readily

B. Lattice energy of ${\text{Li}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$ is lower than that of ${\text{Na}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$, making ${\text{Li}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$ harder to decompose

C. ${\text{Li}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$ decomposes more easily, so it is considered more stable

D. ${\text{Li}}^{+}$ has a smaller size and higher polarizing power, so it stabilizes the carbonate ion by strong covalent bonding

Q.19. Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the highest boiling point, assuming ideal behavior?

A. $0.1\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ ${\text{MgCl}}_2$

B. $0.1\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ ${\text{C}}_6{\text{H}}_{12}{\text{O}}_6$ (glucose)

C. $0.1\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ $\text{NaCl}$

D. $0.1\text{mol}{\text{kg}}^{-1}$ $\text{Urea}$, a non-electrolyte

Q.20. Which of the following orbitals will experience the greatest shielding effect in a multi-electron atom?

A. 3s electron

B. 2s electron

C. 3d electron

D. 2p electron

Q.21. Which statement about adsorption isotherms best explains the behavior described by the Langmuir model?

A. Adsorption heat remains constant at all coverages because the surface is heterogeneous

B. The amount of gas adsorbed increases without limit as pressure increases

C. Adsorption forms multiple layers of gas molecules on the surface

D. Adsorption occurs on a homogeneous surface forming only a monolayer of adsorbate

Q.22. When $0.5\text{mol}$ of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from volume $V_1$ to $2V_1$, what is the change in entropy of the gas?

A. $\mathrm{\Delta }S=0.5R\ln 2$

B. $\mathrm{\Delta }S=0.5R\ln 4$

C. $\mathrm{\Delta }S=-R\ln 2$

D. $\mathrm{\Delta }S=0$

Q.23. Which of the following species is expected to be diamagnetic?

A. ${\text{B}}_2$

B. ${\text{O}}_2^{+}$

C. ${\text{O}}_2^{2-}$

D. ${\text{O}}_2$

Q.24. Which of the following statements correctly describes the trend in ionization enthalpy across a period in the periodic table?

A. Ionization enthalpy increases and decreases randomly with no recognizable pattern

B. Ionization enthalpy decreases from left to right due to increasing nuclear charge

C. Ionization enthalpy remains constant across a period

D. Ionization enthalpy generally increases from left to right, with small dips at specific elements

Q.25. In the electrolysis of aqueous $\text{NaCl}$ solution (brine) using inert electrodes, which products are mainly obtained at the cathode and anode, respectively?

A. Cathode: ${\text{H}}_2$; Anode: ${\text{Cl}}_2$

B. Cathode: $\text{Na}$; Anode: ${\text{Cl}}_2$

C. Cathode: ${\text{H}}_2$; Anode: ${\text{O}}_2$

D. Cathode: $\text{Na}$; Anode: ${\text{O}}_2$

Q.26. What is the IUPAC name of the compound ${\text{CH}}_3-{\text{CH}}_2-\text{CH}(\text{Cl})-{\text{CH}}_3$?

A. 3-Chlorobutane

B. 2-Chlorobutane

C. 1-Chlorobutane

D. Sec-butyl chloride

Q.27. Which reagent can best distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid in a simple laboratory test?

A. Tollens’ reagent

B. Neutral ${\text{FeCl}}_3$ solution

C. Sodium metal

D. Sodium bicarbonate solution

Q.28. For the reaction $\text{A}+2\text{B}\to \text{C}$, the rate law is experimentally found to be $\text{Rate}=k[\text{A}][\text{B}{]}^2$. What will be the effect on the rate if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is tripled?

A. Rate becomes 18 times

B. Rate becomes 12 times

C. Rate becomes 36 times

D. Rate becomes 6 times

Q.29. Which statement correctly explains why graphite is a good conductor of electricity while diamond is not?

A. Both graphite and diamond conduct electricity equally well due to strong covalent bonds

B. Graphite has $s{p}^3$ hybridization, while diamond has $s{p}^2$ hybridization

C. Diamond has a layered structure allowing electrons to move, whereas graphite is a rigid 3D network

D. Graphite has delocalized $\pi$π-electrons that can move freely, while diamond has localized $\sigma$σ-bonds only

Q.30. Which pair of solutions will form a precipitate when mixed?

A. NaCl and ${\text{KNO}}_3$

B. ${\text{KNO}}_3$ and ${\text{Na}}_2{\text{CO}}_3$

C. ${\text{BaCl}}_2$ and ${\text{Na}}_2{\text{SO}}_4$

D. ${\text{NH}}_4\text{Cl}$ and ${\text{NaNO}}_3$

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BIOLOGY

Q.31. In facilitated diffusion across a plasma membrane, which statement best describes the role of carrier proteins?

A. They temporarily bind specific solutes and move them down their concentration gradient without using ATP.

B. They form large, non‑selective pores that allow any solute to pass through freely.

C. They permanently bind solutes, trapping them inside the membrane bilayer.

D. They hydrolyse ATP to move solutes against their concentration gradient.

Q.32. Which of the following plant hormones primarily promotes cell elongation in stems and is responsible for phototropic curvature?

A. Auxin

B. Cytokinin

C. Ethylene

D. Abscisic acid

Q.33. In human respiration, the primary factor that directly stimulates the respiratory centre to increase breathing rate under normal conditions is the

A. high blood ${\text{O}}_2$ concentration detected by baroreceptors

B. increased ${\text{CO}}_2$ and ${\text{H}}^{+}$ concentration in blood and cerebrospinal fluid

C. low blood ${\text{O}}_2$ concentration detected by chemoreceptors

D. low pH inside alveoli due to lactic acid accumulation

Q.34. During DNA replication in prokaryotes, which enzyme is primarily responsible for removing RNA primers and filling the gaps with DNA nucleotides?

A. DNA polymerase I

B. DNA ligase

C. Primase

D. DNA polymerase III

Q.35. Which of the following correctly pairs a structure with its primary function in the human nephron?

A. Loop of Henle – ultrafiltration of blood plasma

B. Collecting duct – primary site of glomerular filtrate formation

C. Bowman’s capsule – active reabsorption of glucose

D. Proximal convoluted tubule major site of selective reabsorption of nutrients and ions

Q.36. In a typical C$\mathrm{\_}4$ plant, the primary function of bundle sheath cells is to

A. store starch temporarily before it is transported via phloem

B. perform the Calvin cycle using ${\text{CO}}_2$ released from a 4‑carbon acid

C. conduct only photorespiration to dissipate excess energy

D. carry out the initial fixation of ${\text{CO}}_2$ into a 3‑carbon compound

Q.37. Which of the following statements about Mendel’s law of independent assortment is most accurate?

A. It states that alleles of different genes assort independently only when they are located on different, non‑homologous chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome.

B. It applies to all pairs of genes, regardless of their location on chromosomes.

C. It explains why alleles of a single gene segregate into different gametes during meiosis.

D. It is violated only in monohybrid crosses and always holds in dihybrid crosses.

Q.38. Which component of the human innate immune system acts as a physical barrier to prevent pathogen entry?

A. Memory cells providing rapid secondary response

B. Cytotoxic T cells destroying virus‑infected cells

C. B lymphocytes producing specific antibodies

D. Intact skin and mucous membranes

Q.39. In the lac operon of $E\mathrm{.}coli$, what happens when lactose is present and glucose is absent?

A. Only the structural gene for β-galactosidase is transcribed, not the others.

B. The operon is strongly activated because the repressor is inactivated and cAMP‑CAP complex enhances transcription.

C. Transcription is completely shut down because RNA polymerase cannot bind to the promoter.

D. The repressor remains bound to the operator, preventing transcription.

Q.40. Which ecological term best describes a group of individuals of the same species living in a defined geographical area and capable of interbreeding?

A. Population

B. Ecosystem

C. Biome

D. Community

Q.41. Which of the following processes during meiosis is primarily responsible for generating new combinations of alleles on the same chromosome?

A. Formation of the cell plate during cytokinesis

B. Segregation of homologous chromosomes during anaphase I

C. Crossing over between non‑sister chromatids during prophase I

D. Random fusion of gametes during fertilization

Q.42. Which statement correctly describes the role of RuBisCO in C$\mathrm{\_}3$ photosynthesis?

A. It acts only as an oxygenase, catalysing the reaction of ${\text{O}}_2$ with RuBP.

B. It is involved solely in the light reactions of photosynthesis in the thylakoid membrane.

C. It fixes ${\text{CO}}_2$ initially into oxaloacetate in the mesophyll cells.

D. It acts as a carboxylase, catalysing the fixation of ${\text{CO}}_2$ to RuBP, but it can also act as an oxygenase under high ${\text{O}}_2$ conditions.

Q.43. Which of the following correctly matches a human digestive enzyme with its substrate and product?

A. Pepsin – acts on lipids to produce glycerol and fatty acids

B. Salivary amylase – acts on starch to produce maltose

C. Trypsin – acts on disaccharides to produce monosaccharides

D. Lipase – acts on proteins to produce dipeptides

Q.44. In human reproduction, which event directly triggers ovulation around the 14th day of a typical menstrual cycle?

A. The shedding of the endometrial lining

B. A surge in luteinising hormone (LH) secretion from the anterior pituitary

C. A sudden rise in progesterone from the corpus luteum

D. A sharp decline in follicle‑stimulating hormone (FSH) levels

Q.45. Which statement best explains why viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites?

A. They possess both DNA and RNA in all stages of their life cycle.

B. They lack their own metabolic machinery and must use the host cell’s biosynthetic systems to replicate.

C. They are always beneficial to the host organism.

D. They can survive indefinitely outside a host cell in an active, replicating form.

Q.46. Which of the following is an example of mutualism in an ecosystem?

A. Clownfish living among the tentacles of sea anemones, both gaining protection and food benefits

B. Tiger preying on a deer in a forest

C. Ticks feeding on the blood of a dog

D. Tapeworm living in the human intestine

Q.47. Which of the following blood components is correctly matched with its primary function?

A. Plasma proteins – transport ${\text{O}}_2$O2 by binding it with haemoglobin

B. Leukocytes – defend the body against infections and foreign substances

C. Platelets – transport most of the ${\text{O}}_2$ in the blood

D. Erythrocytes – initiate blood clotting by forming a plug

Q.48. Which of the following correctly describes a feature of the human nervous system?

A. Sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system generally prepares the body for ‘fight or flight’ responses.

B. Myelin sheath is formed by astrocytes around all types of neurons.

C. Nodes of Ranvier are continuous coverings of myelin with no gaps.

D. Parasympathetic division always increases heart rate and dilates pupils.

Q.49. Which statement correctly differentiates between primary and secondary lymphoid organs in humans?

A. There is no functional difference; primary and secondary lymphoid organs are interchangeable terms.

B. Primary lymphoid organs are sites where lymphocytes interact with antigens, while secondary organs are where they mature.

C. Primary lymphoid organs include lymph nodes and spleen, whereas secondary lymphoid organs include bone marrow and thymus.

D. Primary lymphoid organs are sites of lymphocyte maturation, while secondary lymphoid organs are sites where mature lymphocytes encounter antigens and initiate immune responses.

Q.50. Which of the following best explains the concept of carrying capacity of an environment for a particular species?

A. The fixed number of offspring produced by each individual in every generation

B. The maximum number of species that can exist in an ecosystem at one time

C. The number of individuals present in the initial exponential phase of population growth

D. The maximum number of individuals of that species that the environment can support sustainably, given available resources

And that’s a wrap for today’s NEET practice challenge! How did you score? Share with us. Remember, every question you solve right or wrong is progress.

Consistency beats last-minute cramming, and small daily efforts turn into big ranks on result day. Keep practicing, keep improving, and most importantly, keep believing in yourself.

Tomorrow is another chance to score better and move closer to your white coat dream. See you at the next practice session!

Over the past few days, as board exams are underway, I’ve come across several cases related to students’ mental health. With my experience in education and child psychology, I want to remind you that no exam is more important than your life or your mental well-being. There are countless paths and opportunities available to you – a single exam like NEET does not define your entire future.

Give your best effort in the exam hall, prepare sincerely, and then allow the results to unfold naturally.

Your value is far greater than any score. And remember, we are always here to support you whenever you need guidance or help. So please, don’t let stress overpower you – take care of yourself first.

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