NEET UG Questions

NEET UG Questions: In the competitive landscape of medical entrance exams like NEET UG, consistent practice with high-quality multiple-choice questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology is essential for success.

This article presents carefully curated practice questions from each of these core subjects- designed to mirror the exam pattern, difficulty levels, and conceptual depth, helping aspirants build confidence, improve time management, and identify key areas for improvement.

PHYSICS

Q.1. A ball is projected vertically upward with speed $u$. Ignoring air resistance, which statement about its motion is correct?

A. Its velocity is g upward and acceleration is g downward at the highest point

B. Its acceleration is zero at the highest point

C. Its velocity is g downward and acceleration is zero at the highest point

D. Its velocity is zero and acceleration is g downward at the highest point

Q.2. Two resistors $R_1$ and $R_2$ ($R_2>R_1$) are connected in parallel across a battery of fixed voltage. Which of the following is true about the power dissipated?

A. Both resistors dissipate the same power

B. Power in $R_2$ is greater than in $R_1$

C. Power in $R_1$ is greater than in $R_2$

D. Total power is independent of the values of $R_1$ and $R_2$

Q.3. A ray of light in air is incident on a glass slab at angle $i$ and refracts into the glass at angle $r$. If the refractive index of glass with respect to air is $\mu$, which relation is correct?

A. $\mu ={\displaystyle \frac{\tan i}{\tan r}}$

B. $\mu ={\displaystyle \frac{r}{i}}$

C. $\mu ={\displaystyle \frac{\sin r}{\sin i}}$

D. $\mu ={\displaystyle \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}}$

Q.4. A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius $R$ with speed $v$. If the orbit radius is increased to $4R$, what will be its new orbital speed (assuming gravitational parameter unchanged)?

A. $v$

B. ${\displaystyle \frac{v}{\sqrt{2}}}$

C.${\displaystyle \frac{v}{2\sqrt{2}}}$

D. ${\displaystyle \frac{v}{2}}$

Q.5. A gas follows the equation $PV=nRT$. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which quantity remains constant?

A. Volume

B. Pressure

C. Product $PV$ only for a monoatomic gas

D. Temperature

Q.6. A body of mass $m$m is moving with velocity $v$v. The work required to stop the body is equal to its:

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Power

D. Momentum

Q.7. In simple harmonic motion (SHM), which of the following quantities is always directed towards the mean position?

A. Displacement

B. Velocity

C. Acceleration

D. Momentum

Q.8. A lens forms a real, inverted, and diminished image of an object placed in front of it. Which type of lens is it most likely to be, and where is the object placed?

A. Convex lens with object between focus and optic centre

B. Convex lens with object beyond $2F$

C. Concave lens with object between focus and optic centre

D. Concave lens with object beyond $2F$

Q.9. The drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is $v_d$ when current $I$ flows. If the current is doubled and all other factors remain constant, what happens to the drift velocity?

A. It becomes $2v_d$

B. It becomes ${\displaystyle \frac{v_d}{2}}$

C. It remains $v_d$

D. It becomes $4v_d$

Q.10. A wire is stretched so that its length increases by 1%. Assuming volume remains constant, what approximately happens to its electrical resistance?

A. Increases by about 2%

B. Increases by about 3%

C. Remains unchanged

D. Increases by about 1%

Q.11. Two capacitors $C_1$ and $C_2$ are connected in series to a battery. Which quantity is the same for both capacitors in the steady state?

A. Potential difference

B. Charge

C. Capacitance

D. Energy stored

Q.12. In Young’s double-slit experiment, if the distance between slits is doubled while keeping all other factors constant, what happens to the fringe width?

A. Remains the same

B. Doubles

C. Becomes one-fourth

D. Becomes half

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Q.13. A current-carrying straight conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field such that the conductor is parallel to the field lines. What is the magnetic force on the conductor?

A. Maximum

B. Double of the maximum value

C. Zero

D. Half of the maximum value

Q.14. The temperature of a body is increased from ${27}^{\circ }\text{C}$ to ${327}^{\circ }\text{C}$. By what factor does the rate of emission of radiant energy change, assuming it behaves like an ideal black body?

A. Increases by a factor of 16

B. Increases by a factor of 4

C. Increases by a factor of 2

D. Increases by a factor of 8

Q.15. A sound wave traveling in air is increased in frequency while its speed remains constant. What happens to its wavelength?

A. Becomes one-fourth

B. Doubles

C. Remains unchanged

D. Becomes half

CHEMISTRY

Q.16. For a gaseous reaction, which of the following changes will always shift the equilibrium position of the reaction according to Le Chatelier’s principle?

A. Adding an inert gas at constant volume

B. Adding a catalyst to the reaction mixture

C. Changing the temperature of the system

D. Adding an inert gas at constant pressure

Q.17. Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the highest boiling point, assuming complete dissociation where applicable?

A. 0.1 M NaCl

B. 0.1 M ${\text{CaCl}}_2$

C. 0.1 M urea

D. 0.1 M glucose

Q.18. For the reaction ${\text{N}}_2(g)+3{\text{H}}_2(g)\rightleftharpoons 2{\text{NH}}_3(g)$, the equilibrium constant in terms of partial pressures is $K_p$. Which of the following correctly expresses $K_c$ in terms of $K_p$, given that $\mathrm{\Delta }n$ is the change in moles of gas?

A. $K_c=K_p(RT{)}^{-\mathrm{\Delta }n}$

B. $K_c=K_p(RT{)}^2$

C. $K_c=K_p\mathrm{/}(RT)$

D. $K_c=K_p(RT{)}^{\mathrm{\Delta }n}$

Q.19. Which of the following correctly represents the order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for the elements $\text{Na},\text{Mg},\text{Al},\text{Si}$?

A. $\text{Al}<\text{Na}<\text{Mg}<\text{Si}$

B. $\text{Na}<\text{Mg}<\text{Al}<\text{Si}$

C. $\text{Na}<\text{Mg}<\text{Si}<\text{Al}$

D. $\text{Na}<\text{Al}<\text{Mg}<\text{Si}$

Q.20. In the electrolysis of aqueous $\text{NaCl}$ solution using inert electrodes, which products are formed at the cathode and anode respectively?

A. Cathode: $\text{Na}$, Anode: ${\text{O}}_2$

B. Cathode: ${\text{H}}_2$, Anode: ${\text{Cl}}_2$

C. Cathode: ${\text{H}}_2$, Anode: ${\text{O}}_2$

D. Cathode: $\text{Na}$, Anode: ${\text{Cl}}_2$

Q.21. Which one of the following solutions will act as the best buffer when equal volumes of equimolar solutions are mixed?

A. HCl and $\text{NaCl}$

B. ${\text{NH}}_3$ and $\text{NaCl}$

C. ${\text{NH}}_4\text{Cl}$ and $\text{NaCl}$

D. ${\text{CH}}_3\text{COOH}$ and ${\text{NaCH}}_3\text{COO}$

Q.22. Which hybridization and geometry best describe the central atom in ${\text{SF}}_6$SF6?

A. $s{p}^2$ hybridization, trigonal planar

B. $s{p}^3$ hybridization, tetrahedral

C. $s{p}^{3}d$ hybridization, trigonal bipyramidal

D. $s{p}^3{d}^2$ hybridization, octahedral

Q.23. The rate law for a reaction is given by $\text{Rate}=k[\text{A}{]}^2[\text{B}]$. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this reaction?

A. The reaction is second order overall and zero order with respect to B

B. The reaction is third order overall and second order with respect to B

C. The reaction is second order overall and first order with respect to A

D. The reaction is third order overall and first order with respect to B

Q.24. Which of the following pairs of compounds represents position isomerism?

A. ${\text{C}}_2{\text{H}}_5\text{OH}$ and ${\text{CH}}_3{\text{OCH}}_3$

B. n-butane and isobutane

C. o-dichlorobenzene and $p$-dichlorobenzene

D. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene

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Q.25. Which of the following statements about adsorption is correct?

A. Chemical adsorption does not depend on the nature of the adsorbent

B. Physical adsorption generally increases with increase in temperature

C. Physical adsorption involves weak van der Waals forces and is multilayered

D. Chemical adsorption is usually reversible and occurs at low temperature

Q.26. The correct order of basic strength in the gas phase for the following amines is: ${\text{NH}}_3,{\text{CH}}_3{\text{NH}}_2,({\text{CH}}_3{)}_2\text{NH},({\text{CH}}_3{)}_3\text{N}$.

A. ${\text{CH}}_3{\text{NH}}_2<{\text{NH}}_3<({\text{CH}}_3{)}_2\text{NH}<({\text{CH}}_3{)}_3\text{N}$

B. ${\text{NH}}_3>{\text{CH}}_3{\text{NH}}_2>({\text{CH}}_3{)}_2\text{NH}>({\text{CH}}_3{)}_3\text{N}$

C. ${\text{NH}}_3<{\text{CH}}_3{\text{NH}}_2<({\text{CH}}_3{)}_2\text{NH}<({\text{CH}}_3{)}_3\text{N}$

D. ${\text{NH}}_3<{\text{CH}}_3{\text{NH}}_2<({\text{CH}}_3{)}_2\text{NH}>({\text{CH}}_3{)}_3\text{N}$

Q.27. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?

A. ${\text{Al}}_2{\text{O}}_3$

B. ${\text{SO}}_3$

C. ${\text{CO}}_2$

D. ${\text{Na}}_2\text{O}$

Q.28. Which statement about the molecular orbital (MO) configuration of ${\text{O}}_2$O2 explains its paramagnetic behavior?

A. ${\text{O}}_2$ has an odd number of total electrons

B.${\text{O}}_2$has one unpaired electron in a ${\sigma }_{2p}$ bonding orbital

C. ${\text{O}}_2$ has two unpaired electrons in ${\pi }_{2p}^{\ast }$ antibonding orbitals

D. All electrons in ${\text{O}}_2$ are paired in bonding orbitals

Q.29. For the reaction A→Products, a plot of $\ln [\text{A}]$ versus time $t$ is a straight line with negative slope. What is the order of the reaction and what does the slope represent?

A. First order; slope = $-1\mathrm{/}k$

B. Second order; slope = $-k$

C. First order; slope = $-k$

D. Zero order; slope = $-k$

Q.30. Which among the following has the highest melting point?

A. ${\text{MgCl}}_2$

B. $\text{NaCl}$

C. ${\text{AlCl}}_3$

D. KCl

BIOLOGY

Q.31. In a healthy nephron, which change would most directly increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A. Constriction of the afferent arteriole

B. Dilation of the afferent arteriole

C. Decrease in systemic blood pressure

D. Constriction of the efferent arteriole and afferent arteriole equally

Q.32. Which feature best distinguishes monocot stems from dicot stems in a transverse section?

A. Well-developed pith only in dicots

B. Presence of cambium between xylem and phloem in all bundles

C. Scattered vascular bundles in ground tissue

D. Presence of a continuous ring of vascular bundles

Q.33. In a population of insects, a pesticide is applied repeatedly, and over several generations most individuals become resistant. Which process best explains this change?

A. Natural selection

B. Artificial selection

C. Gene flow

D. Genetic drift

Q.34. Which statement about photosynthesis in C4 plants is most accurate?

A. The Calvin cycle occurs exclusively in mesophyll cells

B. The first stable product of carbon fixation is $3$-phosphoglycerate formed in mesophyll cells

C. Rubisco is present only in mesophyll cells

D. Carbon dioxide is initially fixed into a 4-carbon compound in mesophyll cells

Q.35. A person has blood group A positive. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this person’s blood?

A. Their red blood cells have antigen A and antigen Rh on the surface

B. They lack the Rh antigen on red blood cells

C. They can safely receive blood from any donor with blood group O positive or B positive

D. Their plasma contains anti-A antibodies

Q.36. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

A. Recovery from measles after natural infection

B. Transfer of maternal antibodies to the fetus through the placenta

C. Injection of inactivated polio vaccine

D. Vaccination with BCG

Q.37. Which event during meiosis leads directly to genetic recombination between homologous chromosomes?

A. Segregation of homologous chromosomes during anaphase I

B. Crossing over between non-sister chromatids during prophase I

C. Separation of sister chromatids during anaphase II

D. Random fusion of gametes during fertilisation

Q.38. Which hormone directly stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to secrete testosterone?

A. Luteinizing hormone $(\text{LH})$

B. Oxytocin

C. Prolactin

D. Follicle-stimulating hormone $(\text{FSH})$

Q.39. Which of the following best describes the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the human heart?

A. It provides a pathway for impulses to travel from atria to ventricles

B. It delays the impulse to allow complete ventricular filling

C. It contracts to pump blood into the pulmonary artery

D. It acts as the pacemaker by initiating the heartbeat

Q.40. Which of the following organisms is correctly matched with its mode of reproduction?

A. Yeast – multiple fission

B. Hydra – binary fission

C. Amoeba – budding

D. Planaria – regeneration and fragmentation

Q.41. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding human digestive enzymes and their substrates?

A. Trypsin – proteins

B. Lipase – starch

C. Amylase – lipids

D. Pepsin – fats

Q.42. Which statement best explains why viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites?

A. They are always surrounded by a lipid envelope

B. They have both DNA and RNA as genetic material

C. They are capable of independent protein synthesis outside host cells

D. They cannot synthesize their own ATP and replicate only inside host cells

Q.43. Which of the following best describes apical dominance in plants?

A. Abscission of leaves regulated by ethylene at the apex

B. Inhibition of lateral bud growth by the apical bud, mainly via auxin

C. Initiation of flowering controlled by gibberellins at the shoot tip

D. Promotion of root growth by cytokinin produced in the shoot apex

Q.44. Which statement correctly differentiates between smooth muscle and cardiac muscle in humans?

A. Both are striated but only smooth muscle is involuntary

B. Smooth muscle is striated, whereas cardiac muscle is non-striated

C. Both are voluntary muscles but differ in their locations

D. Smooth muscle is non-striated and involuntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary

Q.45. In ecological succession, which of the following is typically true as a community progresses from a pioneer stage to a climax community?

A. Species diversity decreases and nutrient cycling slows down

B. The environment becomes increasingly harsh and less stable

C. The number of trophic levels decreases

D. Biomass and stability of the community generally increase

Q.46. Which of the following correctly explains the Bohr effect in hemoglobin?

A. Increase in ${\text{CO}}_2$ and ${\text{H}}^{+}$ concentration decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for ${\text{O}}_2$, promoting oxygen release in tissues

B. Low ${\text{CO}}_2$ in tissues causes more oxygen to be unloaded from hemoglobin

C. Decrease in temperature reduces hemoglobin’s affinity for ${\text{O}}_2$ in tissues

D. Increase in ${\text{CO}}_2$ and ${\text{H}}^{+}$ concentration increases hemoglobin’s affinity for ${\text{O}}_2$, enhancing oxygen loading in lungs

Q.47. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched regarding plant tissue and its function?

A. Parenchyma – photosynthesis and storage

B. Collenchyma – storage of starch in seeds

C. Xylem parenchyma – regulation of stomatal opening

D. Sclerenchyma – conduction of water and minerals

Q.48. In a dihybrid cross of pea plants with genotype $\text{TtYy}\times \text{TtYy}$, where T (tall) is dominant over t (dwarf) and Y (yellow seeds) is dominant over y (green seeds), what phenotypic ratio is expected in the F2 generation assuming independent assortment?

A. 3 tall yellow : $1$ dwarf green

B.1 tall yellow: $2$ tall green: 1 dwarf yellow

C. 9 tall green : $3$ tall yellow : $3$ dwarf green: 1 dwarf yellow

D. 9 tall yellow : $3$ tall green : $3$ dwarf yellow: 1 dwarf green

Q.49. Which statement best explains why the small intestine is the major site of nutrient absorption in humans?

A. Its thick muscular wall helps mechanically break down food for absorption

B. It has villi and microvilli that greatly increase surface area and contains an extensive blood supply

C. It lacks enzymes, so food remains longer, allowing more passive absorption

D. Its acidic environment activates pepsin for protein digestion

Q.50. Which of the following processes directly contributes to primary productivity in an ecosystem?

A. Photosynthesis by green plants and phytoplankton

B. Predation by carnivores

C. Respiration by herbivores

D. Decomposition by fungi and bacteria

Mastering these practice questions is just the beginning of your NEET UG journey; regular revision, mock tests, and conceptual clarity will propel you toward your target score.

Challenge yourself with these sets, analyze your performance, and refine your strategy. Your path to a medical career starts with disciplined preparation today.

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