NEW DELHI: With NEET UG 2025 just around the corner, aspirants now have access to a curated quiz of 25 high-quality MCQs from Physical Chemistry — one of the most scoring yet conceptually challenging sections of the NEET Physics-Chemistry-Biology trio.
Released as part of a daily NEET practice series, this quiz covers critical Physical Chemistry topics like the Mole Concept, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Electrochemistry, Solutions, and Solid State, all tailored to match the latest NEET UG exam pattern.
Join NEET News 2025 Test Yourself With The Best Test Series
“Solving chapter-wise MCQs every day is one of the smartest strategies to stay sharp and exam-ready. These Physical Chemistry questions focus on formula-based accuracy, concept clarity, and smart application — the three pillars of NEET success,” said a subject matter expert at Edufever.
1. One mole of any ideal gas at STP occupies:
A) 22.4 L
B) 24.0 L
C) 1 L
D) 2.24 L
2. The number of atoms in 1 mole of Na is:
A) 6.022 × 10²²
B) 6.022 × 10²³
C) 6.022 × 10²⁴
D) 3.011 × 10²³
3. The molarity of a solution containing 9.8 g of H₂SO₄ in 1 litre of solution is:
(Molar mass of H₂SO₄ = 98 g/mol)
A) 0.01 M
B) 0.1 M
C) 1 M
D) 10 M
4. Which of the following is an extensive property?
A) Temperature
B) Pressure
C) Volume
D) Density
5. Which law states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed?
A) Hess’s Law
B) Second Law of Thermodynamics
C) First Law of Thermodynamics
D) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
6. Work done in a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is given by:
A) W = nRTΔT
B) W = -nRT ln(V₂/V₁)
C) W = PΔV
D) W = nCᵥΔT
7. For an ideal gas undergoing adiabatic expansion, which of the following is true?
A) q = 0
B) ΔU = 0
C) W = 0
D) ΔH = 0
8. The rate of a reaction doubles when temperature is increased from 300K to 310K. The activation energy is approximately:
(Use Arrhenius equation, R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
A) 53 kJ/mol
B) 46 kJ/mol
C) 69 kJ/mol
D) 34 kJ/mol
9. The half-life of a first-order reaction depends on:
A) Initial concentration
B) Activation energy
C) Temperature
D) Only on rate constant
10. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
A) Boiling point elevation
B) Freezing point depression
C) Osmotic pressure
D) Viscosity
11. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for NaCl is:
A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 3
12. Henry’s law relates:
A) Pressure and temperature
B) Solubility and pressure
C) Volume and temperature
D) Solubility and temperature
13. A solution is said to be ideal when:
A) ΔH ≠ 0
B) ΔV ≠ 0
C) Raoult’s law is obeyed
D) It shows positive deviation
14. In the electrochemical series, which element has the highest tendency to get reduced?
A) Na
B) F₂
C) Zn
D) Cu
15. A cell has an electrode potential of +0.76 V. It is likely to:
A) Gain electrons
B) Lose electrons
C) Be neutral
D) Not participate in reaction
16. Standard cell potential is calculated using:
A) Nernst equation
B) Faraday’s law
C) E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode
D) Gibbs free energy equation
17. The unit of rate constant for a first-order reaction is:
A) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
B) s⁻¹
C) mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹
D) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
18. Which condition favors maximum buffer capacity?
A) [Salt] >> [Acid]
B) [Acid] = [Salt]
C) [Acid] >> [Salt]
D) Very dilute solutions
19. The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is:
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
20. Which of the following has the maximum boiling point?
A) 0.1 M NaCl
B) 0.1 M glucose
C) 0.1 M MgCl₂
D) 0.1 M urea
21. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis states:
A) Mass ∝ Voltage
B) Mass ∝ Time
C) Mass ∝ Charge
D) Mass ∝ Resistance
22. In solid-state, Schottky defect is observed when:
A) An equal number of cations and anions are missing
B) Only cations are missing
C) Only electrons are missing
D) The atom is displaced from its lattice site
23. Which type of solid is a diamond?
A) Ionic
B) Covalent
C) Metallic
D) Molecular
24. Which of the following has the highest conductivity in the molten state?
A) NaCl
B) BaCl₂
C) AlCl₃
D) CCl₄
25. The enthalpy change for the reaction H₂(g) + ½ O₂(g) → H₂O(l) is:
A) Endothermic
B) Zero
C) Exothermic
D) Cannot be predicted
Solution: 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) D
11) C 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) C
21) C 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) C
Share your quiz scores in the comments section, and our experts will review your performance to provide personalized tips to help you improve your NEET score.
